If we were to find the 16th-order Maclaurin polynomial for a generic function, we might expect to have to differentiate 16 times (ugh). But, we know that the derivatives of sines and cosines repeat themselves. So, it's enough to figure out the pattern:
Give the 100th-order Taylor polynomial for s(t)=4.9t2−t+10 about t=5.
Hint+
You are approximating a polynomial with a polynomial.
Answer+
T100(t)=127.5+48(t−5)+4.9(t−5)2=4.9t2−t+10
Full solution+
A Taylor polynomial gives a polynomial approximation for a function s(t). Since s(t) is itself a polynomial, any nth-order Taylor polynomial, with n greater than or equal to the degree of s(t), will simply give s(t). So, in our case, T100(t)=s(t)=4.9t2−t+10.
If that isn't satisfying, you can go through the normal method of calculating T100(t).
Find the 20th-order Maclaurin polynomial for sin(x4).
Hint+
Manipulate a known polynomial, rather than working from the definition.
Answer+
x4−3!x12+5!x20
Full solution+
The 5th-order Maclaurin polynomial for sin(x) is T5(x)=x−3!x3+5!x5, so the 20th-order Maclaurin polynomial for sin(x4) is T5(x4)=x4−3!x12+5!x20. (We use here Theorem 9.5.8 from the textbook.)
Use a 5th-order Maclaurin polynomial for 6arctanx to approximate π.
Hint+
What is 6arctan(31)?
Answer+
π=6arctan(31)≈45823≈3.156
Full solution+
We note that 6arctan(31)=6(6π)=π. We will find the 5th-order Maclaurin polynomial T5(x) for f(x)=6arctanx.
Then π=f(31)≈T5(31). Let's begin by finding the first five derivatives of f(x)=6arctanx.
Remark: There are numerous methods for computing π to any
desired degree of accuracy. Many of them use the Maclaurin
expansion of arctanx. In 1706 John Machin computed π
to 100 decimal digits by using the Maclaurin expansion together
with π=16arctan51−4arctan2391.
So, the pattern of derivatives is 21, 21, −21, −21, 21, 21, −21, −21, etc. This is a little tricky to write in sigma notation. We can deal with the “doubles" by separating the even and odd powers. The first few terms of T2n that contain even powers of (x−4π) are
and the ℓth term here is
(2ℓ)!2(−1)ℓ(x−4π)2ℓ. To verify that this really is the ℓth term, evaluate this for ℓ=0,1,2 explicitly. When k=2n, ℓ=n so that
and the ℓth term here is
(2ℓ+1)!2(−1)ℓ(x−4π)2ℓ+1.
To verify that this really is the ℓth term, evaluate this for ℓ=0,1,2 explicitly.
The largest odd integer that is smaller than 2n is 2n−1 and when k=2n−1=2ℓ+1,
ℓ=n−1 so that
Compare this to the Maclaurin polynomial for cosine.
Answer+
We estimate that the sum is close to −21.
Full solution+
While you're working with sums, it's easy to mistake a constant for a function. The sum given in this question is some number: π is a constant, and k is an index– if you wrote out all 100 terms of this sum, there would be no letter k. So, the sum given is indeed a number, but we don't want to have to add 100 terms to get a good idea of what number it is.
From Example 9.5.3
in the text, we see that the (2n)th-order Maclaurin polynomial for f(x)=cosx is
T2n(x)=k=0∑n(2k)!(−1)k⋅x2k
If n=100 and x=45π, this equation becomes
T200(45π)=k=0∑100(2k)!(−1)k⋅(45π)2k
So, the sum corresponds to the 200th Maclaurin polynomial for f(x)=cosx evaluated at x=45π. We should be careful to understand that T200(x) is not equal to f(x), in general. However, when x is reasonably close to 0, these two functions are approximations of one another. So, we estimate
What is the linear approximation of f(x), centred at the origin?
Which power function does f(x) most closely resemble
near the origin?
Answer+
y=0
2x3
Full solution+
We can answer the first question directly, or by finding a Maclaurin polynomial for f(x), which we'll do in the second part anyways. If we wanted to do it directly, it would look something like this:
If we you did the first part separately, then you already know that the power function will have a power greater than 1. Let's find a Maclaurin polynomial for f(x):
sinx≈x−3!x3
log(1+x)≈x−2x2+3x3, so log(1+2x)≈2x−2(2x)2+3(2x)3
So, f(x)≈(x−3!x3)2⋅(2x−2(2x)2+3(2x)3), which equals 2x3 plus some higher-order terms (that will be dominated by the lowest-order term).
So, the numerator looks like −e7sin(y)≈e7(y−3!y3), which looks like e7⋅x for y close to 0. The denominator looks like (1+y+2!y2+3!y3)⋅[y−2y2+3y3]2, which looks like y2 when y is close to 0. So, all together, our limit looks like y→0limye7, which DNE.
As x→0, for any nonzero value of n, the numerator is nonzero, while the denominator is 0, so the limit won't be a real number. If we set n=0, then we get a numerator that is always 0, so the functon is identically 0 over its entire domain, so its limit would be 0.
Therefore, there is no value of n that results in a limit that is a positive constant.